Edward Pothier wrote:
A minor point of clarification is that the question on the marriage is validity rather than sacramentality. The second marriage mentioned could be a valid, but natural one. Since the wife was not baptized, it could not be sacramental. Both potential spouses must be baptized for a marriage to be considered sacramental.
Regarding sacramentality - How then would it be possible for the Church to provide a dispensation for a Catholic to marry a non-baptised person? How could the Church provide a dispensation for this when according to you no such marriage could be sacramental? Wouldn't it be contradictory for the Church to provide a dispensation of form to allow a Catholic to enter into a non-sacramental union?
Wanted to expand on a point brought up earlier:
It is important; however, not to assume invalidity based on the lack of baptism for one or both of the parties to a marriage.
According to the two Canon lawyers (both of whom were also priests) I spoke to regarding my prior marriage and my husband's prior marriage the baptismal status of one (or both) of the spouses does not necessarily invalidate a marriage.
My husband's ex-spouse was a practicing Jew (obviously not baptised) and he had to submit to the full investigation by the Tribunal.
Quote:
As on all marriage validity/invalidity questions posed to this board, the directive to check with a pastor and/or canon law expert is repeated.
Absolutely. Which is why my post is filled with "possibly" and "maybe" statements followed by a reiteration of the advice to stay in contact with his priest.
At best we can offer an educated guess.