Hello,
I am an Episcopalian who lately has been reading about Catholicism. However, there are certain matters of doctrine I don't understand, particularly the ban of female priests. I'm not trying to troll, I would just really like a reasoned explanation why women cannot be priests in the Catholic Church, because for the following reasons, I believe there should be no barrier to female clergy:
1. I have heard Catholics say that because Jesus only selected men as His disciples, only men can be priests. However, there were many female disciples, including, of course, Mary Magdalene, who was considered an "apostle to the apostles," as well as others. Not only this, but women were the first to see the risen Jesus, and He sent them to tell the rest of the disciples--which is, in a sense, a form of preaching. While there were no women among the twelve disciples, one could also say that because every one of these disciples was Jewish, Jesus only wanted priests to be of Jewish descent--but we don't say that, because we recognize that Christ came for all people. Why is the distinction made when it comes to gender?
2. Furthermore, I don't believe the early church actually did make this distinction. Though the documentation of the time is scant, there is enough evidence to be nearly certain that women served as deacons and to strongly suggest they were ordained as priests. To begin with, at the beginning of Romans 16 Paul writes "I commend to you our sister Phoebe, a deacon (diakonos) of the church in Cenchreae. I ask you to receive her in the Lord in a way worthy of his people and to give her any help she may need from you, for she has been the benefactor [prostatis] of many people, including me." Additionally, The Apostolic Tradition, a very early church document, forbade the ordination of widows, which clearly implies that widows were being ordained and that the ordination of non-widowed women was acceptable. The Testamentum Domini, from the 4th or 5th century, permits the ordination of widows. Finally, Clement of Alexandria wrote in the second century that women travelled with the apostles as their "fellowministers." There is also a fairly significant amount of art depicted women in ecclesiastical positions.
3. Lastly, I don't see, theologically, how banning women from the priesthood could be justified. Jesus did not make such distinctions between the sexes, at least not that I am aware of. And in Galatians 3:28-29, Paul writes "In Christ there is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus." We are on board when it comes to the first two claims, so why does the distinction continue to be made on the basis of sex?
Again, I am really not trying to cause discord or to annoy anyone. I just truly would like to understand the ban on female clergy given the above points.
Thank you so much.
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