Alabama12 wrote:
Quote:
Jesus obeyed the Word of God, not man. He was subject to it. If some leaders” view of inspiration were true, Jesus was subject to an errant, rather casually thrown-together “Word of Man.” Jesus would have been subject, then, to the will of man, not the will of God.
However, in all the details of His acts of redemption, Jesus was subject to Scripture as God’s Word. He obeyed it. It was His authority, the rule by which He lived. He came to do God’s will, not His own, and not man’s. Note how all of His life He did things because they were written—as if God had directly commanded. He fulfilled Old Testament prophecies about Himself. The passages are found all over the Old Testament. I cite here only a very few quoted in the New Testament: Matthew 11:10; 26:24, 53–56; Mark 9:12, 13; Luke 4:17–21; 18:31–33; 22:37; 24:44–47.
He Himself is the Word of God. All the words from His lips were the Word of God. (John 3:34). If He had desired, He could have written a new set of rules and they would have been the Word of God. But, He did not. He followed without question the Bible already penned by men.
This is the sensible thing for every believer to do. May all who read this adopt Jesus” attitude and become subject both to Him as Living Word (living Torah) and to the Bible as the infallible, written Word of God.
The holy Scriptures … make you wise to accept God’s salvation (Hebrew Yeshua) by trusting in Christ Jesus (Hebrew Yeshua HaMashiach). The whole Bible was given to us by inspiration from God and is useful to teach us what is true and to make us realize what is wrong in our lives; it straightens us out and helps us do what is right. It is God’s way of making us well prepared at every point, fully equipped to do good to everyone. – II Timothy, Chapter 3, Verses 15–17, Living Bible
Protestants followed the writings of the OT, of the Apostles and the teaching of Christ himself.
Hi there Alabama12, since you believe scripture is the only authority to go by I was wondering what you make of :
Jude 6-9 : ” yet when Michael the archangel was fiercely disputing with the devil about the body of Moses, he did not venture to bring against him an accusation of blasphemy, but said ‘may the lord rebuke thee’.”
This reference to Michael’s altercation with the devil over the body of Moses was taken from some tradition apparently familiar to the readers he was addressing but nowhere recorded in scripture!
If the apostles subscribed to sola scriptura why do you suppose they referenced this tradition which is no where mentioned in scripture?
You assert that protestants follow the writings of the OT & yet :
In St. John 10, 22-36 Our Lord & the Apostles observed the key feast of the Dedication, or Hanukkah, which celebrates events only recorded in 1 & 2 Maccabees ......so on what grounds do protestants reject these books?
Where does Jesus tell us which books belong in the Bible? How do you know the NT is inspired seeing as Jesus obviously didn't refer to them like He did the OT?