theJack wrote:
Correct me if I'm wrong, gherkin, but the problem of reducing omnipotence to the ability to do all that is logically possible is in some way analogous to the problem of reducing math to pure logic. What I mean is that misunderstands both what logic is and what the thing being reduced is. It seems to me that logic must necessarily be incomplete for no other reason than it is requires the presumption of axiom -- that is, it is contingent enterprise. So when Russell tried to reduce math to logic, he presumed the latter could be complete (or, at least, infinite); but its "groundedness" so to speak ultimately grounded the project.
Maybe similarly, omnipotence is plainly not a contingent enterprise. We can discuss the relation between the set of all logical possibilities and omnipotence, but we ought not try to reduce the latter to the former.
The math point is a little beyond me this evening, I'm afraid.

But in general, I think reductive explanations are chimerical anyway, and you're right--reducing God's power to anything else is certainly a bad idea, even if you can make helpful connections to other stuff like logical possibility or what have you. The whole Leibizian pursuit is, I think, closely connected to the theistic personalism that Father mentioned. Maybe Leibniz himself rose above it, I don't know him well enough to be sure, but certainly contemporary leibnizians don't.
To your point about omnipotence being the ability to create ex nihilo, that reminds me of the way that I've thought of omnipotence, which is not to be quantitatively different from power (i.e., my power, but more all it, such that all of it that is or could be) but rather qualitatively different.[/quote]
Yes. It's not my point, though. I'm pretty sure I read it first in James Ross. I actually don't know St. Thomas on this stuff nearly as well as I should.
Quote:
So I've said that omnipotence is that which enables power itself. If anything has any power to act, it is only because it is related to the First Cause (and I'm obviously working directly from the First Way here). So on a fundamental level, omnipotence is the first bringing about of the effect. But such "first" effect, while not being uncaused in terms of efficiency (since the First Cause is the efficiency) seems it always must be ex nihilo in so far as it means no material cause. I mean, in every causal chain we can imagine, we can break down the causal structure until we get to something where there's no material at all that precedes. Take the quantum fluctuations in todays QFT. Ok, what causes *that*?
Put a hair differently, we can and must terminate in a First Efficient Cause. But because that First Efficient Cause must be pure act, it can't have a body, can't be material. So I don't see any way to have a First Material Cause. That means, at the bottom of any chain of material causes, there must be an ex nihilo effect, and that would tie directly into the omnipotence of the First Cause, perhaps just being identical to it.
Thoughts?
Sounds pretty plausible. I'll have to think more about it.