By His Mercy wrote:
Thanks! I'll have to look into these. I do have Silva and it's been so long I don't remember much!
My pleasure! I hope they help.

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I don't equate election with Calvin, I don't think he handled it well. I think Aquinas handled it much better. I had Hodges for first year Gk, and I'm sure he believed salvation was 100% by grace. I don't understand the point you're making here. I don't know much about Hodges theology.
There's a thread around here somewhere basically saying that Calvin and Aquinas are more similar than not. Having studied both in some detail, I tend to agree with that. There are differences, of course. But suffice it to say, I don't think the
Augustinian approach to election (which is the common fount of both Calvin and Aquinas) is correct.
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Yes, but once you've done a lot of Systematic Theology, you'll notice you have "problem verses." I'm not as wild as you might think! You have to deal with passages that omit certain details, certain things that are just expected but not stated. I search around for details and conditions that aren't stated in parallel passages.
I've done a lot of systematic theology (three degrees worth). I don't see "problem verses" anymore. I used to. When I thought in terms of systematic theology. I don't now. If a verse creates problems with my systematic theology, the problem is with my theology, not the verse. Again, we should never permit our systematic theology to influence our understanding of a verse (within certain qualifications re progressive revelation)
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For instance, let me give an example of a different passage only to show my methodology (not to derail the thread away from Jn 3).
Jn 14
13 Whatever you ask in My name, that will I do, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son.
14 If you ask Me anything in My name, I will do it.
OK, Jesus told them if they ask Him anything in His name, He will do it. Case closed. That's it. Anything. "You can camp on this." Linguistically. Grammatically. Etc.
But elsewhere James says this:
Jas 4
3 You ask and do not receive, because you ask with wrong motives, so that you may spend it on your pleasures.
So now you ask and do not receive because of a wrong motive. Was Jesus wrong? Jesus didn't give this condition. But I sense from doing Systematic Theology for a while that it is just expected that you ask with the correct motive. It's not stated, but expected.
I'm familiar with your method. I used it myself for a long time. I just don't accept it as valid anymore. That's not a Catholic v Protestant thing. That's just a proper hermeneutic thing. You don't need Jas 4:3 to see that you can't ask Jesus for a million bucks in His name and you will therefore get it. A person who gets that out of John 14 has misunderstood John 14
in its own context. Likewise, you don't need John 14 to make sense out of Jas 4:3. Jas 4:3 stands on its own and has its own message within its own context.
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Just like Jn 3:16. Elsewhere we see the gospel saves if we hold fast (1 Cor 15:2), one is in His household if they hold fast (Heb 3:6, 14), one is reconciled if they continue in the faith, not moved away (Col 1:22-23).
And, again, I reject the method you're using, and for a good reason comparable to the above. Your method above doesn't have Jas 4:3 complimenting John 14. You have James CONTRADICTING John. If you get "you can have absolutely anything you want" out of John 14--if you are saying that is what the text actually says, without the qualifiers from James--then you are saying that James is literally correcting the error of John 14.
And that demonstrates the problem with John 3:16. You don't have Paul complimenting Jesus. You have him CORRECTING Jesus, which is to say, you have him saying that Jesus is wrong. And that's bad theology as well as bad hermeneutics.
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So when I see promises, my method is to look around and gather the details, the conditions, etc. They might just be expected but not stated every time. This is the case in Jn 14. Jesus wasn't wrong. But He did have certain expectations - or if He stated them, the writer omitted them. Either way, we've got promises with things expected but not always stated. That's part of my methodology.
Does this mean anyone who truly believes will eventually turn away and never believe? I'm not saying this will happen, I just don't know. But that's irrelevant to the warnings...they are still true and should be taught just as Jesus taught them.
Yes, I know. Your method is to read a passage in light of a preexisting theology. And, with all due respect, I don't accept that method. It is well intended eisogesis. You would do better to let the text speak for itself.
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I understand. And the warnings are true, both at the same time. Hey, all whom the Father gives Jesus will indeed come (Jn 7:37). They'll all be saved. But then the devil has sown tares in with the wheat. Those whom the Father gives Jesus will persevere and "pass" the warnings. The tares will not. But the critical thing here is that I believe what is "looked at", again, is real change/fruit. Jesus said unless one was born again (Jn 3:3), not unless one had a once-for-all-time imputed righteousness, 'Jesus' perfect life of obedience' is looked at in our place to satisfy any requirement, etc.
Sorry, I'm digressing.
I don't think it's true that all whom the Father give Jesus will persevere and pass the warnings. I don't think that the "fruit" we look at is any kind of change. All of that you are doing there is more systematic theology that begs the question. You are assuming a doctrine, which John 3:16 contradicts, and then using that doctrine to reinterpret John 3:16 in such a way that it no longer means what it actually says. And you do that on the basis of this preexisting theology, all so that you can say, "See, the Bible actually does teach my theology!" Well of course it does. You reinterpreted it against what it says to make it say what your theology says that it says precisely by using your theology as the means and method of interpretation! But after all that, you can't get away from the fact that the words of Scripture, as written, contradict what you say that they mean.
And no worries on the digressions. We're just having conversation here.

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True, but they stand true, so Jn 3 can't contradict them. Systematic Theology must tie things together, not hold up a bunch of contradicting teachings.
John 3 doesn't contradict them. But even if it did, you wouldn't reinterpret John 3 so that it doesn't. Put differently, if John 3 contradicts those other passages, then it does so whether you reinterpret it or not. If you have to reinterpret it so that it means other than what it says, then you still have a contradiction. Now you're just explaining it away by saying that you think the contradiction is okay because you aren't going to accept the actual words as written.
And no, systematic theology does not have to tie things together. I just disagree with that point. That's the cart you have before the horse. Systematic theology is not a glue. It's not a tie. It's just the result of study. Take this silly example:
1. The only women Jack has ever seen are blonde
2. Jack has seen all women
3. Therefore, all women are blonde
So that's a valid argument. It's wrong, of course, because (2) is wrong. But let that pass. My point is that the conclusion doesn't tie together the two premises. They are what they are, end of story. Nothing more to say there. The conclusion is just the logical deduction we draw from comparing those two statements. And so it is with systematic theology. We compare two statements and draw our conclusions. But we don't use those conclusions to reinterpret the premises to say something that they don't say, because then, you're just back to eisogesis.
Again, this is a one way street. Exegesis theology to Systematic theology--NEVER systematic to exegetical.
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I'm all about putting things together. I believe Jn 3 has things that are just expected, and are detailed out in other passages. You seem to be fixated on one verse.
With all due respect, you aren't putting things together. You are taking the parts out of the box and deciding how you want them to fit together. And when they don't fit according to your own design, you are getting out a saw and cutting the parts down so that they fit the way you want them to. Then you are telling those of us who are putting things together using the actual parts that we aren't doing it correctly because we aren't building according to your design.
But that's what happens when you let systematic theology influence interpretation. You come to the text with your design, your theology, and read that into the text. Therefore, you don't get your theology from the Bible at all. You are using the Bible to illustrate your own theology. And that makes you the authority over Scripture, which means that where Scripture contradicts your authority (as John 3:16) does, you don't believe Scripture. And just as bad, where Scripture agrees with your theology, you do not agree with it because of what it says, but because it agrees with you. And therefore, you still do not believe Scirpture. You believe yourself and are willing to accept an "amen" by a witness who you think agrees with you.
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Sure, one should address the lexical and semantic questions first. Then one folds it in with their theology later, and if there appears to be unstated expectations there, when the expectations are spelled out elsewhere, then one might end up interpreting with those expectations. Not translation, just interpreting.
And I've explained why I don't agree. I know you have nothing but good intentions, but when your good intentions cause you to deny Scripture--and to deny what words actually mean--then your good intentions have lead you down a path of error. And the thing to do when you find yourself in error is to admit your mistake, repent, and get back on the right track asap. In your case, that starts with letting John 3:16 mean exactly what it says, no more and no less.
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"If you ask anything in My name, I will do it." Full stop. But it's just expected that one asks with the correct motives. However that's not stated here.
If you want to change subjects and talk about John 14, we can certainly do that. Everything I'm saying applies to John 14 just as well as it does to John 3.
God bless
