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 Post subject: Is it theologically correct to say Jesus in omnipresent?
PostPosted: Thu Sep 22, 2022 2:15 pm 
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Sons of Thunder
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I'm inclined to say yes. But at the same time, Jesus isn't present within me in terms of his bodily presence, so perhaps there's a distinction here that I'm missing?

Anyone know if Catholic theology addresses this?


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 Post subject: Re: Is it theologically correct to say Jesus in omnipresent?
PostPosted: Fri Sep 23, 2022 6:49 pm 
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Jedi Master
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As God, Jesus is omnipresent in the same ways God is. But He is not present everywhere in His human nature. Is that the distinction you needed?

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 Post subject: Re: Is it theologically correct to say Jesus in omnipresent?
PostPosted: Sat Sep 24, 2022 6:59 pm 
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Sons of Thunder
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Yeah, I had that in mind.

But the reason I asked is I seem to remember someone here saying that it would be incorrect to say Jesus existed before the Incarnation (or something to that effect). The second person of the Holy Trinity did. But Jesus existed at the Incarnation. So I thought perhaps some kind of subtle distinction might apply to his omnipresence as well.

This question is very practical for me. I've read spiritual books that say we should pray to God as being present interiorly within our souls. This made me wonder if we could pray to Jesus this way. For some reason I got it in my mind that perhaps it was heretical or erroneous to think this. So I just wanted to make sure by asking this.


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 Post subject: Re: Is it theologically correct to say Jesus in omnipresent?
PostPosted: Wed Sep 28, 2022 8:53 pm 
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You can do that. After the Incarnation, it's proper to refer to the Son as Jesus both in His Divinity and Humanity.

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