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|Questions about Sensation.
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|Author:||regularoldcatholic75 [ Wed Jul 03, 2019 11:10 pm ]|
|Post subject:||Questions about Sensation.|
Could someone please explain how sensation works in Aristotelian-Thomism? I understand that each sense organ has its proper sensible, but I'm having trouble understanding how the sensation is dematerialized so that it can be perceived by the subject.
What faculty dematerializes the sensation? I'm assuming its a faculty of the soul, but I keep getting hung up by thinking of it as corresponding to something like simple apprehension, which requires the grasping of a form.
When I touch a ball, how does the roundness get into me? If it's the form, then wouldn't it be intellectual knowledge rather than sense knowledge?
There has to be some distinction here that this idiot is missing. Thanks in advance for the help.
|Author:||Pro Ecclesia Dei [ Thu Jul 04, 2019 1:51 am ]|
|Post subject:||Re: Questions about Sensation.|
Sensation is immaterial in a lesser way than intellectual apprehension. As Aquinas states, it is removed from some of the conditions of matter.
To use a simpler example, the redness in my apprehension of a red chair is not the same in re as the redness in the chair itself, but is the same in a way.
See the medium acts on the eye, which causes the color to exist in the mind. The form is abstracted from this matter of the chair, but is not wholly free of the determination of matter. It still must be in matter (in some equivalent way) in the perceiver (whether in the organ itself, or the brain). And it retains some determination from its source... I do perceive the chair! So the color as existing in the matter of the brain exists in re distibctly from the chair, but it exists intentionally... The form keeps an aboutness to it. So the sensible form in the perceiver exists intermediately between real being (like the chair) and imaginary being (like a chair I dream up)
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