Peetem wrote:
The doctor has found no physiological abnormalities which would typically, but not always, cause the problem.
So the thought is there are some hormonal imbalances. However, blood tests came back normal. The patient is 49, so almost certainly premenopausal.
Complicated situation....
49? Isn't that smack in the middle of the average age for menopause?
Not sure how that factors. In anycase, I think 2 and 3 can be moral, 1 if without sterilization, but as you say the doctor is refusing that. The fourth option of managing the symptoms, NSAIDs, transxemic acid and iron supplements may not be sufficient in her case, but is usually an option,
Its not typically in the middle but can be - usually around 51ish....but its close enough.
The problem is so bad she can't leave the house. So unfortunately #4 isn't an option.
